Q1: The Forms appended to the rules can be revised under the powers granted in:

Q2: The mode and manner for recovering the cost of investigation are to be notified by the:

Q3: The proceeds from an auction are deposited into:

Q4: The offender or liable person is:

Q5: The process for determining the market value of confiscated goods for auction involves getting quotes from:

Q6: The release order for returning confiscated goods is issued by the:

Q7: The inventory of confiscated goods must be signed by the Enforcement Officer and the offender. If the offender refuses, it can be signed by:

Q8: A person who makes an unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity can be recommended for imprisonment, a fine, or:

Q9: The notice for a special meeting of the Board can have a reduced notice period at the discretion of the:

Q10: The enforcement cost report includes the cost of storing seized items until they are:

Q11: The enforcement cost report is prepared by the EO and verified by the:

Q12: The timeline for the Hearing Officer to forward a requisition from an Enforcement Station to the Board is:

Q13: For an offence of misuse of authority by an employee, a Hearing Officer can impose a maximum fine of:

Q14: The pecuniary limits for imposing fines are specified in:

Q15: The Forms for all proceedings are specified in:

Q16: The Authority must arrange trainings for its employees on all of the following EXCEPT:

Q17: When presenting digital evidence, it must be accompanied by a chain-of-custody document and a certificate from the:

Q18: The standardized mechanism for storage space is to be notified by the:

Q19: The power to issue specific instructions on the use of body cameras lies with the:

Q20: The monthly compliance report must be submitted by the SDEO to the:

Q21: The 'buddy system' is mandatory for:

Q22: Storage services for seized goods are to be procured under which rules?

Q23: The inventory of confiscated goods must include all of the following EXCEPT:

Q24: If auction proceeds are insufficient, unpaid rent and costs are recovered as:

Q25: The HO can extend the payment period for rent and cost by a maximum of how many additional days?

Q26: The rent and cost of enforcement determined by the HO must be paid by the offender within:

Q27: The sale value for auctioning confiscated goods is fixed at less than what percentage of the market value?

Q28: The highest bidder in an auction must deposit the remaining bid amount within how many working days?

Q29: Digital evidence must be tagged with metadata that does NOT include:

Q30: All digital records must be uploaded to a secure system within how many hours of collection?

Q31: The maximum imprisonment recommended for unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity is:

Q32: A person accused of unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity has how many days to reply to a show-cause notice?

Q33: A Whistle-blower who receives a show-cause notice for a false disclosure has how many days to submit a written reply?

Q34: The highest authority that can impose a fine of Rs. 300,000 for an offence by a company is the:

Q35: The maximum fine a Hearing Officer can impose for the unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity is:

Q36: The maximum fine a Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO) can impose for false whistle-blowing is:

Q37: The maximum fine an Enforcement Officer (EO) can impose for an offence by a private person under Section 44 is:

Q38: For granting interim relief, the Hearing Officer must be satisfied that the matter is of:

Q39: Rule 12 states that the Hearing Officer shall NOT restore ______ as an interim relief.

Q40: If a party fails to appear after notice, the Hearing Officer can:

Q41: The Hearing Officer must take up a representation for hearing within how many working days of receiving it?

Q42: The Hearing Officer must decide a representation within how many days of its filing?

Q43: A representation must be filed by an aggrieved person within how many days from the cause of action?

Q44: For an immoveable encroachment, the Hearing Officer can issue a Removal Order giving the illegal occupier how many days to vacate?

Q45: For a moveable encroachment, the Enforcement Officer can serve a notice to show cause within how many days?

Q46: A complainant, other than a Department or Whistle-blower, must submit a complaint of public nuisance along with:

Q47: The notice for a regular Board meeting must be issued at least how many days in advance?

Q48: How often must the Board meet, as per Rule 3?

Q49: These rules are called the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority (Operations and Procedures) Rules:

Q50: Under which section of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act 2024 are these rules made?

Q51: The section of the Act that allows enforcement for non-compliance with an Absolute Order is:

Q52: The section of the Act that makes a representation inadmissible if action was taken on its direction is:

Q53: The section of the Act that allows the EO to act on a movable encroachment failure is:

Q54: The section of the Act that governs the delivery of notices and orders is:

Q55: The numeral in the days for the HO to forward a Section 20 requisition to the Board is:

Q56: The numeral in the working days for the HO to take up a representation is:

Q57: The numeral in the days for deciding a representation is:

Q58: The numeral in the days for filing a representation is:

Q59: The numeral in the days given for an immovable encroachment removal order is:

Q60: The numeral in the days given for a movable encroachment removal order is:

Q61: The numeral in the rule for the notice period before a meeting is:

Q62: The numeral in the rule for Board meeting frequency is:

Q63: The Governor makes the rules by power granted in the Act of:

Q64: The year in the name of the Rules is:

Q65: The PERA Rules 2025 are specifically named:

Q66: The lawful custodian of reverted State property could be a:

Q67: The Board is the ultimate recipient of a requisition under:

Q68: The key feature of an Absolute Order, unlike an EPO, is that it is:

Q69: Notices are delivered as per:

Q70: The enforcement power under Section 36(5) of the Act is triggered by:

Q71: Separate case files are maintained for:

Q72: The power to call records from other departments allows the HO to check the veracity of the claim of the:

Q73: The time limit for the HO to decide a representation (60 days) starts from the:

Q74: The legal right claimed in a representation can be over a:

Q75: For immovable encroachment, the Hearing Officer issues notices based on the:

Q76: The daily report by the EO on movable encroachments is submitted to the:

Q77: An EPO is issued if the Enforcement Officer, after the IO's report, finds that the nuisance:

Q78: The common injury stated in a public nuisance complaint must be to the:

Q79: The agenda for a Board meeting is included in the:

Q80: A special meeting of the Board can be called for matters involving:

Q81: In the interim relief example, the EPO was suspended because:

Q82: Interim relief is best described as:

Q83: The key distinction between Rule 10 (ex-parte) and Rule 11 (dismissal for default) is:

Q84: The example in Rule 10 shows that a good cause for absence could be:

Q85: If a party defaults in attendance, the Hearing Officer can:

Q86: During a hearing, the authorized officer has the right to:

Q87: The maximum time limit for the entire process from filing a representation to its decision is:

Q88: The time to reply to a show-cause notice for movable encroachment is the same as the time given in a Removal Order for the same, which is:

Q89: In the immovable encroachment example, the Hearing Officer verified the builder's claim by calling records from the:

Q90: The initial action for an immovable encroachment involving pending civil litigation must be reported by the EO, including the:

Q91: The PERA Rules 2025 were made by the:

Q92: Regarding sealed premises, the Hearing Officer cannot order:

Q93: A requisition from an Enforcement Station under Section 20 of the Act must be forwarded by the HO to the Board within:

Q94: All notices and orders are issued and delivered as per:

Q95: If a nuisance is not removed as per the Absolute Order, the HO directs the SDEO, who then directs the EO to enforce under:

Q96: When converting an EPO to an Absolute Order, the order must include all of the following EXCEPT:

Q97: The Hearing Officer must decide a complaint or representation by a:

Q98: An order for interim relief must be immediately sent to the:

Q99: Which is a condition for granting interim relief?

Q100: As interim relief, the Hearing Officer can: