Premium Test and PDF

Q1: Idiom: “Full of beans”

Q2: Idiom: “Birds of passage”

Q3: The bus broke ___ on the way.

Q4: Correct statement

Q5: Antonym of “Cease”

Q6: He hopes that he ___ soon.

Q7: Correct statement

Q8: Beware ___ thieves.

Q9: “Sufficient” means

Q10: Synonym of “Shrewd”

Q11: They ___ all the window panes.

Q12: Choose the antonym of “Impound”

Q13: My friend willingly complied ___ my request.

Q14: What is the synonym of the word Shaman?

Q15: Change narration: The father said to his children, "Be punctual."

Q16: Synonym of FLATTERY is:

Q17: Which type of sentence is this: "He made a mistake after he apologized"?

Q18: What is the antonym of the word OVERWROUGHT?

Q19: Identify the grammatically correct sentence

Q20: Correct the English: “These is a perfect method” — corrected form:

Q1: Act primarily deals with relation between Govt and:

Q2: Process for non-Muslim tenant to declare succession by conditions requires:

Q3: Rights of nominated successor not affected even if tenant acquires:

Q4: Power to nominate successor under Sec 20(d) from list includes:

Q5: Max fine under original Act was likely less than 10,000 (amended later)?

Q6: Act came into force in year:

Q7: Value of trees destroyed under Sec 33(c) assessed by:

Q8: Statement of objects and reasons published in Gazette of:

Q9: Act is a special law overriding general tenancy laws?

Q10: Power to make rules under Act vested in:

Q11: “Servant of State” likely refers to:

Q12: Max imprisonment for offence under Sec 33:

Q13: 1944 amendment addressed rights of:

Q14: 1951 amendment introduced:

Q15: Collector’s power to resume tenancy under Sec 24 is:

Q16: Succession rules for female first allottee governed by:

Q17: Work benefiting several tenancies is improvement for:

Q18: Max fine for unauthorized felling of trees (Sec 33):

Q19: Female tenant losing limited interest by marriage inherits as per:

Q20: Power to allow tenancy exchange rests with:

Q21: Squatter on Govt land, Collector may resume:

Q22: Mares/camels exempt from attachment if progeny <

Q23: Female’s alienation rights (post-1944 amendment):

Q24: Succession of Muslim tenant devolves by:

Q25: Tenant can sub-lease without consent for:

Q26: Tenant rights attachable in court decree?

Q27: Tenant can exchange tenancy:

Q28: Which previous Act was repealed by this Act?

Q29: The Act extends to the whole of Punjab except:

Q30: What is the official name of the Act?

Q1: Essential commodity definition is found in:

Q2: Attempt or abetment penalty:

Q3: Appeal to appellate committee against Provincial Controller's order is:

Q4: Appeal to Divisional Commissioner's order is:

Q5: Forfeiture applies if accused:

Q6: Price fixation can differ based on:

Q7: Orders may require maintaining:

Q8: Orders may require marking commodities with:

Q9: Livestock and Dairy Development Department Secretary is:

Q10: Chief Secretary is:

Q11: Number of Ministers in Price Control Council:

Q12: Actions under repealed Ordinance are:

Q13: The Act repealed:

Q14: Orders under the Act have overriding effect:

Q15: Council may amend the Schedule by:

Q16: Council may frame regulations by:

Q17: Government may make rules by:

Q18: Protection applies to actions:

Q19: Burden of proof lies on accused when:

Q20: Special Magistrate may try offences:

Q21: False statement offence carries imprisonment up to:

Q22: Corporate offences apply to:

Q23: Personal consumer buying an essential commodity:

Q24: Appeal against Provincial Controller General's order must be filed within:

Q25: Appeal to Divisional Commissioner must be filed within:

Q26: Offences under the Act are:

Q27: Maximum sealing period for premises in repeat offence:

Q28: For repeat offence, minimum fine is:

Q29: Fine for first offence may extend to:

Q30: Penalty for first offence may extend to imprisonment:

Q31: If accused is acquitted, deposited amount:

Q32: Sale proceeds from seized commodities are kept in:

Q33: Section 8 allows seized commodities to be sold:

Q34: Display of price list must be at:

Q35: Section 7 prohibits selling above:

Q36: Price fixation under section 6 may be for:

Q37: The provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure:

Q38: Under section 4(2)(k), seizure and forfeiture can be done:

Q39: Under section 4(2)(f), an order may fix:

Q40: Under section 4, an order may regulate:

Q41: The Council's function includes:

Q42: Chairperson of the Price Control Council is:

Q43: "Provincial Controller General" is:

Q44: "Importer" excludes a person importing:

Q45: "Council" means:

Q46: "Controller of Prices and Supplies" means:

Q47: The Act comes into force:

Q48: The Act extends to:

Q49: The Act was enacted on:

Q50: The Punjab Price Control of Essential Commodities Act, 2024 is cited as:

Q1: THIRST: PARCHED :: ?

Q2: He is deaf ___ my advice.

Q3: The idiom "All and Sundry" means:

Q4: What is a synonym of Melancholy?

Q5: Which bar is located at the top of MS Word?

Q6: Cell reference in Excel shows in which bar?

Q7: Which computer is not classified based on size?

Q8: Who is the current Managing Director of IMF?

Q9: FORTRAN language was invented by:

Q10: Bolan Pass is located in which province of Pakistan?

Q11: What is a local wind that blows from the sea to the land called?

Q12: In the 2024 global pollution rankings, Pakistan was ranked ___ according to IQ Air?

Q13: Who was the Ambassador of Pakistan to the UN in 2024?

Q14: What was the Defence Budget of Pakistan for the fiscal year 2023–24?

Q15: In 1924, who referred to the AIML as a religious organization?

Q16: How many provinces did Pakistan have immediately after its independence in 1947?

Q17: Which Pakistani mountaineer ascended K2 in 2020?

Q18: In which year was the first coin of Pakistan issued?

Q19: In which year did the Battle of Samugarh take place?

Q20: Which continent has the maximum number of countries?

Q21: What percentage of world trade is carried out through ships?

Q22: Donbass is a dispute between which two parties?

Q23: What is the name of the disputed boundary between India and China?

Q24: The twenty-third session of the Conference of the Parties (COP 23) took place from 6–17 November 2017 in:

Q25: The 2019 BRICS summit was held in which month in Brazil?

Q1: Which software is commonly used for database management?

Q2: Which of the following is a web browser?

Q3: Feature to quickly fill series in Excel

Q4: Space between margin & text is called

Q5: What is a URL used for?

Q6: Which feature checks spelling in Word?

Q7: Basic formula to add numbers in Excel

Q8: How to embed a video from website into presentation?

Q9: Which feature allows adding speaker notes to presentation?

Q10: Study of Earth’s atmosphere, esp. weather forecasting, is called

Q11: Bu Ali Sina is famous for work in

Q12: Largest desert of Pakistan

Q13: Which country passed law in 2023 to streamline foreign relations?

Q14: Which viceroy had shortest tenure?

Q15: Pakistan & France agreed on 31 July 1951 to initiate

Q16: -----------was first Jawan awarded Nishan-e-Haider

Q17: Sheikh Mujeeb-ur-Rehman met his end by

Q18: Pakistan adopted bicameral legislature under Constitution of

Q19: Sir Shahnawaz Bhutto was Diwan in which princely state?

Q20: Main dispute between Pakistan and India

Q21: Boundary line between Azad Kashmir and Occupied Kashmir is called

Q22: Madr-e-Millat Fatima Jinnah died in

Q23: The Objectives Resolution was adopted in

Q24: The Unionist Party in British India was founded by

Q25: Pakistan is ____ largest sugar producer in the world

Q26: ICT stands for

Q27: Where was the first OIC summit held?

Q28: Tsai Ing-wen is the president of

Q29: Plato was the student of

Q30: ECO (Economic Cooperation Organization) HQ is in

Q31: The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was founded in

Q32: Wikileaks founder Julian Assange belongs to which country?

Q33: A person who observes and studies the natural world is called

Q34: Which two countries conducted joint military exercise “Al-Kassah II” in Dec 2021?

Q35: The Treaty of Versailles was signed in which year?

Q36: The study of human society, examining human behavior and society, is called

Q37: When was the Berlin Wall demolished?

Q38: Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus is the Director General of which organization?

Q39: Genghis Khan died in the year

Q1: The Forms appended to the rules can be revised under the powers granted in:

Q2: The mode and manner for recovering the cost of investigation are to be notified by the:

Q3: The proceeds from an auction are deposited into:

Q4: The offender or liable person is:

Q5: The process for determining the market value of confiscated goods for auction involves getting quotes from:

Q6: The release order for returning confiscated goods is issued by the:

Q7: The inventory of confiscated goods must be signed by the Enforcement Officer and the offender. If the offender refuses, it can be signed by:

Q8: A person who makes an unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity can be recommended for imprisonment, a fine, or:

Q9: The notice for a special meeting of the Board can have a reduced notice period at the discretion of the:

Q10: The enforcement cost report includes the cost of storing seized items until they are:

Q11: The enforcement cost report is prepared by the EO and verified by the:

Q12: The timeline for the Hearing Officer to forward a requisition from an Enforcement Station to the Board is:

Q13: For an offence of misuse of authority by an employee, a Hearing Officer can impose a maximum fine of:

Q14: The pecuniary limits for imposing fines are specified in:

Q15: The Forms for all proceedings are specified in:

Q16: The Authority must arrange trainings for its employees on all of the following EXCEPT:

Q17: When presenting digital evidence, it must be accompanied by a chain-of-custody document and a certificate from the:

Q18: The standardized mechanism for storage space is to be notified by the:

Q19: The power to issue specific instructions on the use of body cameras lies with the:

Q20: The monthly compliance report must be submitted by the SDEO to the:

Q21: The 'buddy system' is mandatory for:

Q22: Storage services for seized goods are to be procured under which rules?

Q23: The inventory of confiscated goods must include all of the following EXCEPT:

Q24: If auction proceeds are insufficient, unpaid rent and costs are recovered as:

Q25: The HO can extend the payment period for rent and cost by a maximum of how many additional days?

Q26: The rent and cost of enforcement determined by the HO must be paid by the offender within:

Q27: The sale value for auctioning confiscated goods is fixed at less than what percentage of the market value?

Q28: The highest bidder in an auction must deposit the remaining bid amount within how many working days?

Q29: Digital evidence must be tagged with metadata that does NOT include:

Q30: All digital records must be uploaded to a secure system within how many hours of collection?

Q31: The maximum imprisonment recommended for unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity is:

Q32: A person accused of unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity has how many days to reply to a show-cause notice?

Q33: A Whistle-blower who receives a show-cause notice for a false disclosure has how many days to submit a written reply?

Q34: The highest authority that can impose a fine of Rs. 300,000 for an offence by a company is the:

Q35: The maximum fine a Hearing Officer can impose for the unauthorized disclosure of a whistle-blower's identity is:

Q36: The maximum fine a Sub-Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO) can impose for false whistle-blowing is:

Q37: The maximum fine an Enforcement Officer (EO) can impose for an offence by a private person under Section 44 is:

Q38: For granting interim relief, the Hearing Officer must be satisfied that the matter is of:

Q39: Rule 12 states that the Hearing Officer shall NOT restore ______ as an interim relief.

Q40: If a party fails to appear after notice, the Hearing Officer can:

Q41: The Hearing Officer must take up a representation for hearing within how many working days of receiving it?

Q42: The Hearing Officer must decide a representation within how many days of its filing?

Q43: A representation must be filed by an aggrieved person within how many days from the cause of action?

Q44: For an immoveable encroachment, the Hearing Officer can issue a Removal Order giving the illegal occupier how many days to vacate?

Q45: For a moveable encroachment, the Enforcement Officer can serve a notice to show cause within how many days?

Q46: A complainant, other than a Department or Whistle-blower, must submit a complaint of public nuisance along with:

Q47: The notice for a regular Board meeting must be issued at least how many days in advance?

Q48: How often must the Board meet, as per Rule 3?

Q49: These rules are called the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority (Operations and Procedures) Rules:

Q50: Under which section of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act 2024 are these rules made?

Q51: The section of the Act that allows enforcement for non-compliance with an Absolute Order is:

Q52: The section of the Act that makes a representation inadmissible if action was taken on its direction is:

Q53: The section of the Act that allows the EO to act on a movable encroachment failure is:

Q54: The section of the Act that governs the delivery of notices and orders is:

Q55: The numeral in the days for the HO to forward a Section 20 requisition to the Board is:

Q56: The numeral in the working days for the HO to take up a representation is:

Q57: The numeral in the days for deciding a representation is:

Q58: The numeral in the days for filing a representation is:

Q59: The numeral in the days given for an immovable encroachment removal order is:

Q60: The numeral in the days given for a movable encroachment removal order is:

Q61: The numeral in the rule for the notice period before a meeting is:

Q62: The numeral in the rule for Board meeting frequency is:

Q63: The Governor makes the rules by power granted in the Act of:

Q64: The year in the name of the Rules is:

Q65: The PERA Rules 2025 are specifically named:

Q66: The lawful custodian of reverted State property could be a:

Q67: The Board is the ultimate recipient of a requisition under:

Q68: The key feature of an Absolute Order, unlike an EPO, is that it is:

Q69: Notices are delivered as per:

Q70: The enforcement power under Section 36(5) of the Act is triggered by:

Q71: Separate case files are maintained for:

Q72: The power to call records from other departments allows the HO to check the veracity of the claim of the:

Q73: The time limit for the HO to decide a representation (60 days) starts from the:

Q74: The legal right claimed in a representation can be over a:

Q75: For immovable encroachment, the Hearing Officer issues notices based on the:

Q76: The daily report by the EO on movable encroachments is submitted to the:

Q77: An EPO is issued if the Enforcement Officer, after the IO's report, finds that the nuisance:

Q78: The common injury stated in a public nuisance complaint must be to the:

Q79: The agenda for a Board meeting is included in the:

Q80: A special meeting of the Board can be called for matters involving:

Q81: In the interim relief example, the EPO was suspended because:

Q82: Interim relief is best described as:

Q83: The key distinction between Rule 10 (ex-parte) and Rule 11 (dismissal for default) is:

Q84: The example in Rule 10 shows that a good cause for absence could be:

Q85: If a party defaults in attendance, the Hearing Officer can:

Q86: During a hearing, the authorized officer has the right to:

Q87: The maximum time limit for the entire process from filing a representation to its decision is:

Q88: The time to reply to a show-cause notice for movable encroachment is the same as the time given in a Removal Order for the same, which is:

Q89: In the immovable encroachment example, the Hearing Officer verified the builder's claim by calling records from the:

Q90: The initial action for an immovable encroachment involving pending civil litigation must be reported by the EO, including the:

Q91: The PERA Rules 2025 were made by the:

Q92: Regarding sealed premises, the Hearing Officer cannot order:

Q93: A requisition from an Enforcement Station under Section 20 of the Act must be forwarded by the HO to the Board within:

Q94: All notices and orders are issued and delivered as per:

Q95: If a nuisance is not removed as per the Absolute Order, the HO directs the SDEO, who then directs the EO to enforce under:

Q96: When converting an EPO to an Absolute Order, the order must include all of the following EXCEPT:

Q97: The Hearing Officer must decide a complaint or representation by a:

Q98: An order for interim relief must be immediately sent to the:

Q99: Which is a condition for granting interim relief?

Q100: As interim relief, the Hearing Officer can: